Show that
(i) is purely real,
(ii) is purely real.
Given:
Taking the L.C.M, we get
[∵(a + b)(a – b) = (a2 – b2)]
Putting i2 = -1
= 0 + 0i
Hence, the given equation is purely real as there is no imaginary part.
(ii) Given:
Taking the L.C.M, we get
…(i)
[∵(a + b)(a – b) = (a2 – b2)]
Now, we know that,
(a + b)2 + (a – b)2 = 2(a2 + b2)
So, by applying the formula in eq. (i), we get
Putting i2 = -1
Hence, the given equation is purely real as there is no imaginary part.