Mark the Correct alternative in the following:

If n = 1, 2, 3, …., then cos α cos 2 α cos 4 α … cos 2n – 1 α is equal to


Given expression


cos α cos 2 α cos 4 α … cos 2n – 1 α


multiplying and dividing the expression by 2 sin α , we get,



[using sin 2x = 2 sin x cos x]



Now multiplying and dividing the expression with 2.




Continuing this process for n-1 times we will get



Now repeating for the last time,




This proves that



Hence the answer is option D.

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