Mark (√) against the correct answer in the following: Let A and B be two non - empty sets and let f : (A × B) → (B × A) : f(a, b) = (b, a). Then, f is

Question

Philoid · Accepted Answer

SINCE, f(a, b) = (b, a).There is no same value of y at different values of x ∴function is one one

∴Range(A×B)≠Codomain(B × A)

⇒function is into

Mark (√) against the correct answer in the following:Let A and B be two non - empty sets and letf : (A × B) → (B × A) : f(a, b) = (b, a). Then, f is

Mark (√) against the correct answer in the following:
Let A and B be two non - empty sets and let

f : (A × B) → (B × A) : f(a, b) = (b, a). Then, f is