A body is in translational equilibrium under the action of coplanar forces. If the torque of these forces is zero about a point, is it necessary that it will also be zero about any other point?

Question

Philoid · Accepted Answer

Here the body is in translational equilibrium. We are assuming n different forces at n different particles.

Let us say the torque about R is zero.

Now let us find the torque about O now

This proves that the torque about any other point will also be zero.