Is it true to say that, if in two triangles, an angle of one triangle is equal to an angle of another triangle and two sides of one triangle are proportional to the two sides of the other triangle, then the triangles are similar? Give reason for your answer.
(False)
The given statement is not correct.
As here, one angle and two sides of two triangles are equal but these sides not including equal angle.
We know that by SAS similarity criteria, if one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of the other triangle and the sides including these are proportional, then the two triangles are similar.