If y = (sin–1 x)2, prove that: (1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0
Note: y2 represents second order derivative i.e. and y1 = dy/dx
Given,
y = (sin–1 x)2 ……equation 1
to prove : (1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0
We notice a second order derivative in the expression to be proved so first take the step to find the second order derivative.
Let’s find
As,
So, lets first find dy/dx
Using chain rule we will differentiate the above expression
Let t = sin–1 x => [using formula for derivative of sin–1x]
And y = t2
…….equation 2
Again differentiating with respect to x applying product rule:
[using
]
Using equation 2 :
∴ (1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0 ……proved