If y = (sin–1 x)2, prove that: (1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0

Note: y2 represents second order derivative i.e. and y1 = dy/dx


Given,


y = (sin–1 x)2 ……equation 1


to prove : (1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0


We notice a second order derivative in the expression to be proved so first take the step to find the second order derivative.


Let’s find


As,


So, lets first find dy/dx



Using chain rule we will differentiate the above expression


Let t = sin–1 x => [using formula for derivative of sin–1x]


And y = t2



…….equation 2


Again differentiating with respect to x applying product rule:



[using ]




Using equation 2 :



(1–x2) y2–xy1–2=0 ……proved


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