If x = sin, show that (1–x2)y2–xy1–a2 y = 0
Note: y2 represents second order derivative i.e. and y1 = dy/dx
Given,
x = sin
y = ……equation 1
to prove: (1–x2)y2–xy1–a2 y = 0
We notice a second order derivative in the expression to be proved so first take the step to find the second order derivative.
Let’s find
As,
So, lets first find dy/dx
∵ y =
Let t = asin–1 x => [
]
And y = et
…….equation 2
Again differentiating with respect to x applying product rule:
Using chain rule and equation 2:
[using
]
Using equation 1 and equation 2 :
∴ (1–x2)y2–xy1–a2y = 0……proved